Well councilor, I've had this discussion with co-workers before...the overwhelming position seemed to be that a BUSINESS is not the same as a HOUSE. So therefore, if he intends to do business with the PUBLIC, then he is acknowledging that his business is a PUBLIC place despite the fact it is PRIVATELY-OWNED.
How do you see that argument? I thought it was a good argument. It is the same as Walmart...they essentially choose to do business in Oklahoma with the public and therefore should respect the laws of Oklahoma. They should have the right not to let me in their houses with a gun, but in their store, they should not be able to decided who gets Constitutional rights and who doesn't. What say you on this JB? Is there any validity here (even if you don't agree)?
So then by that logic...on my PRIVATE property...I CAN say "No gays" right??? Of course I'd never do that, but I want you guys to explain the difference to me???
were those co workers standing members of the Supreme Court?