my understanding is that it 'shiria law' has never been considered in a state case here in oklahoma. my understanding also is that cases where this would likely be considered are federal cases. now by oklahoma voters passing this measure, have we now thrown a rock a a sleeping dog? if this is ruled unconstitutional, might not we have just done the opposite of what we voted on and all of a sudden 'shiria law' can be considered in state of oklahoma cases?
It has not YET been considered in a case in Oklahoma, but you are incorrect in that Sharia law can only been considered in a federal case. The case which has already been mentioned here where it was used was indeed a state criminal case. A STATE judge ruled that under Sharia law, the husband had a right to rape and beat his wife. Keep in mind, this ruling HAS been overturned already. The amendment here in Oklahoma was a preemptive strike to prevent similar cases from considering religious law. This has NOTHING to do with international business law. It has everything to do with people's right's that already exist under our laws from being trampled on by judges who wish to make a name for themselves.
Here is a reference to the case in question in New Jersey.
http://www.renewamerica.com/columns/fischer/100725