A STATE judge ruled that under Sharia law, the husband had a right to rape and beat his wife.
Here is a reference to the case in question in New Jersey.
http://www.renewamerica.com/columns/fischer/100725
The judge did not rule that the husband had a right to rape and beat his wife. The judge determined he did not have "criminal intent," and without criminal intent, she could not convict him. She used a fuzzy part of the law (I use the term law loosely here) around cultural defense to apply strict interpretation of the law around intent. In my opinion, a poor decision on her part, but that doesn't mean we can say she "ruled under Sharia law" or that "Sharia law has been accepted in our courts."
The article link above also leads readers to believe that the restraining order wasn't given b/c of the husbands "rights" under Sharia law. That is also incorrect. The judge states she is not issuing a restraining order because the parties have no reason to come in contact with each other because they are already divorced (although she admits there is a chance they will interact once the child is born). Once again, another poor decision on her part.
Whether or not you agree with what I said above, I encourage you to read about the case rather than take the word of others. As I said in another thread, you will probably be surprised by some of what you read. Lots of misinformation out there. I haven't found the original case, but the following link has a good summary:
http://lawlibrary.rutgers.edu/courts/appellate/a6107-08.opn.html