Theoretical question about purchase legality

[Droff]

In this theoretical situation, I have a friend who has a son in another city in OK. Both he and his son are interested in the same firearm, they just aren't easy to find due to the recent hysteria. The son happens to find 2 of the same firearm from the same FFL holder (dealer I guess). The son buys both, not sure what was told to the FFL when the firearms were purchased, but paperwork and a background check was completed. The son then gave the firearm to his father and was reimbursed for the cost.

In this scenario, what was done wrong, if anything, and is there anything the father needs to do to obtain legal ownership, if he doesn't already have it?
Thanks.

(Mods - If in wrong forum, please move to correct forum)

 

[caojyn]

I would consider them two seperate gifts, firearm and money

 

[SMS]

They both live in Oklahoma? A son bought two guns and decided to sell one to his dad? As long as he doesn't make a habit of it, no harm no foul.

The dad doesn't have to do anything to "obtain legal ownership"....he bought it from his son and there is no registration or paperwork trail required. If either party is concerned about proof of the gun changing hands, they could create a sales receipt, but it's not required.

 

[Droff]

Both live in OK and that's what it sounds like, he bought two and sold one to his Dad.

 

[berettaman]

Sounds perfectly legal,assuming the father is not a disqualified person.

 

[Droff]

Roger that guys, thanks for the input.