Changed my mind on SQ 755

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I'm going to vote No or abstain now, instead of yes, simply because it appears to be unconstitutional as directly violative of the 1A.

Unlike the blissninny gun-banners, who support measures that are clearly unconstitutional because they believe they're good ideas and the constitution be damned; I actually have a conscience and think that it's wrong to vote for something pretty clearly unconstitutional, just because I think it's a good idea.

It IS a good idea to prohibit courts from using Islamic law in decisions, but it's also a law "respecting [a particular - 'an'] establishment of religion", which is binding on the states as a no-no through the 14A - it singles out Islam to the exclusion of all other religions - it's clearly a law "respecting an establishment of religion" - it is law passed "with respect to", "in respect to", or "related to" (and thus "respecting" as that terms was used in those days) a specific establishment of religion - that being Islam. Just change it to say all religions equally next time, and it will then be a good idea AND constitutional - and I'll vote for it. Much as I'd like to frankly see Islam wiped from the face of the planet as the scourge and cancer that it is - IN MY OPINION - the US Constitution is the first and foremost concern which must be obeyed.**

'Course, it will still pass, but a losing vote, used well with principle and conviction, is not ever wasted.

**However, there is at least one contra argument here: When is a 'religion' not a 'religion'? The courts do not just accept any hare-brained scheme that you cough up and claim as a 'religion', which is why prisoners' lawsuits to smoke peyote and sacrifice animals for their satanic 'religion' usually fail in the courts. So perhaps it could be argued that a religion is only a religion if it is a teacher solely of of non-violent, non-criminal acts? Is a religion that encourages its followers to kill others in the name of its deity a valid recognizable religion? Maybe not. I don't know the federal definition of 'religion', and it may not be fully fleshed out, but perhaps Islam doesn't meet the definition - or maybe some sects of Islam do, and some don't (blatent teachers of violence)? It's an interesting hypothetical though. Anyone have a quick overview of how the courts have generally gone about deciding which religions are valid under 1A and which are not?

Is it based on the number of followers as a percentage of the population? If so, then it's in our best interest (arguably) to stop the spread before they can bootstrap themselves into the definition, if they're not already there (similar to the ridiculous definition that the SCOTUS put down for us in Heller - If the gun is "commonly used for self-defense", then it's protected, and if it's not, it's not -- Say what? The only way for the masses to get Gun Type A or Gun Type B into their hands such that they become commonly used, is if the public is allowed to buy them - if they're not banned - idiotic circular catch-22 logic. Because machine guns have been banned since 86, they're not commonly used for self-defense, so they likely aren't protected, which is complete and utter BS - perhaps had they not been banned since 86 moratorium - perhaps then, like semi-auto AR15 types, they MAY have transitioned during that time from "not commonly used" to "commonly used" for self-defense). Stupid definition, but that wouldn't stop the SCOTUS and other courts from applying an analygous one to religion - one which we can use against Islam, but in a constitutional way: "Hey Islam, you're not a religion because you don't have enough people, and the fact that you can't get enough people to become a religion is (allegedly) in part because you can't get laws to protect your groups, is what's known colloquially as 'tough noogies' ".

Of course the other contra is, Hey the legislatures and the people are *supposed to* pass unconstitutional stuff - that's just what we do. It's the duty and responsibility of the courts to come in each and every time and strike them down as unconstitional if they are - we ought not speculate on constitutionality if there's any ambiguity at all, and just pass things with a solely prudential calculus in mind (this is a good idea; the benefits outweigh the costs).
 

de-evoproject

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Sorry i see it as a violation of church and state and there are parts of islamic law that seem directly contradictory to our constitution and way of life. Beating your wife may be encouraged in Islam but that does not make it OK.

Too many parts of Islamic law are directly contrary to what America was founded on to give a blanket statement of allowing its "laws" in our courts.

Plus the simple separation of church and state.

If they want to practice fine. We don't infringe on anyone's right to practice their religion UNTIL their practice of religion begins violating laws and/or others rights and freedoms. If your religion said, "Go forth and have sex, forcefully if necessary, with all sexy blondes so as the spread the dominant Ginger gene." you have a right to worship and believe that religion but practicing it would still be rape.

Its an extreme example but still along the same lines. If you want to live in this country and retain your religion, you are going to have to abide by this countries standing rules or find a new country to worship in.
 

radarmonkey

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Sorry i see it as a violation of church and state and there are parts of islamic law that seem directly contradictory to our constitution and way of life. Beating your wife may be encouraged in Islam but that does not make it OK.

Too many parts of Islamic law are directly contrary to what America was founded on to give a blanket statement of allowing its "laws" in our courts.

Plus the simple separation of church and state.

If they want to practice fine. We don't infringe on anyone's right to practice their religion UNTIL their practice of religion begins violating laws and/or others rights and freedoms. If your religion said, "Go forth and have sex, forcefully if necessary, with all sexy blondes so as the spread the dominant Ginger gene." you have a right to worship and believe that religion but practicing it would still be rape.

Its an extreme example but still along the same lines. If you want to live in this country and retain your religion, you are going to have to abide by this countries standing rules or find a new country to worship in.

I'm not trying to get smart. I honestly want to know where you find the seperation of church and state. How do you see this SQ 755 as "violating" the seperation of church and state?
 

JB Books

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SQ 755 is simply a way to pander to people's fear of Muslims. It is a conservative play on the race card. Despite the one ruling in New Jersey which is so oft cited (and which was reversed), the likelihood of Sharia law ever having any influence in the US is extremely remote. This is even more true in Oklahoma, the buckle of the proverbial "bible belt." For all the hard core conservatives here that support this, let me admonish you all with your favorite saying, "Wake up sheeple." Right wing politicians are every bit as callous as left wingers.
 
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But the ol "separation of church and state" idea cuts both ways here, both FOR the law prudentially, and AGAINST it constitutionally - it's just not that simple - the "separation of church and state" doctrine arises FROM the "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion" clause - those are the words - there's no mention of these exact words "separation" or "separation of church and state" - reading the exact words, one comes to the conclusion that although passing a law like this which included ALL religions would jive with and be in harmony with the (so-called) "establishment clause" and the separation doctrine that springs therefrom, but this one which picks out ONE religion to the exclusion of others does NOT jive - more than it DOES jive with the separation doctrine, when you read and follow the actual rule:

"Congress [and now the states, via 14A] shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion." (which is quite unfortunately usually labeled the "establishment clause", when it would be much better named the "respecting an establishment of" clause or just "respecting" clause.)

This law is indeed one which RESPECTS (i.e. makes reference to, or is specifically in respect to) a particular ("an") establishment of religion - Islam - UNLESS Islam were not deemed to be a 'religion' under the definition of it. So if this law did NOT pick out Islam, then not only would it be constitutional, but it would be highly supportive of the separation doctrine. But as it stands, it seems to me to be blatently unconstutional.

SQ 755 is simply a way to pander to people's fear of Muslims. It is a conservative play on the race card. Despite the one ruling in New Jersey which is so oft cited (and which was reversed), the likelihood of Sharia law ever having any influence in the US is extremely remote. This is even more true in Oklahoma, the buckle of the proverbial "bible belt." For all the hard core conservatives here that support this, let me admonish you all with your favorite saying, "Wake up sheeple." Right wing politicians are every bit as callous as left wingers.

Mostly all true - but (a) not that important, and (b) not really what this thread is about. It's intended to be about constitutionality of this law and whether a yes vote, abstinence, or a no vote is the BEST course of action for a principled voter. And whether, if you BELIEVE that it IS unconstitutional, a yes vote is the proper vote anyway.

But since you brought it up, let me explain what I mean step by step:

SQ 755 is simply a way to pander to people's fear of Muslims.

Of course it is - and by gawd we OUGHT to fear these people. Laws against murder are a way to pander to people's fear of ya know, murders and murderers - what's that got to do with anything? You're not asking nor answering the right & important QUESTIONS, so far. But we SHOULD fear Islam and the growth of it, because for every member of Islam who is NOT violent, there's always gonna be a corresponding certain portion spinning off from every mainstream group and aligning themselves with the extreme wings, and becoming killers and maimers and wife-beaters of 'infidels' in their minds.

It is a conservative play on the race card.

What do you mean by that, exactly? If you mean what I think you mean, then 100% untrue. It's got nothing to do with race - there's LOTS of Americans of all races and skin types, who have been recruited into violent Muslims sects, and are currently considering themselves waging war against non-believers. These are sometimes WHITE PEOPLE in America who are doing this! Wasn't the Islamic a-hole guy who killed our soldiers at Ft. Hood an American citizen? He had dark skin and a foreign-sounding name, sure, but he was perfectly accepted in our society as assimilated and mainstream. This has ZERO to do with race or citizenship or skin color, and everything to do with ISLAM and its violent teachings. So in a nutshell, you're misinformed on that count, I do believe. Seems to me that it's YOU alone who is playing the race card here, when there's none even in the deck.

Despite the one ruling in New Jersey which is so oft cited (and which was reversed), the likelihood of Sharia law ever having any influence in the US is extremely remote. This is even more true in Oklahoma, the buckle of the proverbial "bible belt."

True, but utterly irrelevant. Just because something has never happened doesn't mean that it's not a good idea to foresee that it *could* happen, and take steps to prevent it FROM happening. Even you just admitted it's not impossible (you characterized it as "extremely remote" which I'd agree with).

For all the hard core conservatives here that support this, let me admonish you all with your favorite saying, "Wake up sheeple."

I agree, to the extent that they're TRUE conservatives, who vote against it for the reasons I've outlined here - the uncontitutionality of it. As for the "hard core conservatives" - if you're referring to that contingent that I think you're referring to, give me a break - they're hopeless - they're not conservatives at all - the ones who just tow the R party line wherever it may lead them, led around by their gonads on a string by limbaugh and beck. They're gonna vote for it regardless. I'm trying to reach true conservatives, independents, free thinkers, Ron Paulers, and the like.

Right wing politicians are every bit as callous as left wingers.

You got that straight.
 

radarmonkey

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But the ol "separation of church and state" idea cuts both ways here, both FOR the law prudentially, and AGAINST it constitutionally - it's just not that simple - the "separation of church and state" doctrine arises FROM the "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion" clause - those are the words - there's no mention of these exact words "separation" or "separation of church and state" - reading the exact words, one comes to the conclusion that although passing a law like this which included ALL religions would jive with and be in harmony with the (so-called" establishment clause and the separation doctrine that springs therefrom, but this one which picks out ONE religion to the exclusion of others does NOT jive - more than it DOES jive with the separation doctrine, when you read and follow the actual rule:

"Congress [and now the states, via 14A] shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion." (which is quite unfortunately usually labeled the "establishment clause", when it would be much better name the "respecting an establishment" clause)

This law is indeed one which RESPECTS (i.e. makes reference to, or is specifically in respect to) a particular ("an") establishment of religion - Islam - UNLESS Islam is not a religion. So if the law did NOT pick out Islam, then not only would it be constitutional, but it would be highly supportive of the separation doctrine. But as it stands, it seems to me to be blatently unconstutional.

I thought this meant that our government couldn't establish (make up or endorse an existing ie. catholic or baptist etc.) a national religion and force us to follow it. Do I have that part right? Again, not trying to be confrontational or smart. Just looking for info. I read VM's posts on his blog about this SQ 755 and I'm still no clearer.
 

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In before hilarious rationalization about why we shouldn't let Islamic law influence court decisions but should still allow Christian doctrine to influence judicial/legislative decisions.
 
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I thought this meant that our government couldn't establish (make up or endorse an existing ie. catholic or baptist etc.) a national religion and force us to follow it. Do I have that part right

No sir, but very commonly misheld conception. In part springing from the misnomer of calling it the "establishment clause". One of many things that the amendment does NOT say is "Congress shall not establish a religion" or "establish an official religion", contrary to popular belief.

Ridgehunter, if I'm sent to prison, and I sue claiming that my religion I made up requires me to have sex with 16 year old virgins weekly (legal to have sex with in most states), and demand that the gov't bring them to me for my conjugal visits, AND it requires me to eat filet mignon with loaded bakers every night, because hey "that's my religion and I'll go to hell if this doesn't happen" - you think that will be forced on the warden by the courts? Not a chance in hell. There's a line drawn all the time on what is a religion and what is not, and it's ordinarily much more favorable to what the gov't wants to restrict it to, not what the prisoners want. So in short, yes rly. :) You can require the prison to give you a Koran or Book of Mormon, but you can't require them to supply you with virgins.
 

poopgiggle

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On topic: I agree that singling out Islam implies that other religious law can be used in court decisions, which is unequivocally wrong.
 
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