I understand that is what you are saying but the unstated implication is that you have to have an Oklahoma Handgun license to possess a handgun--much less any firearm. Should I, not only qualified to possess firearms but to sell them for a major retailer (which means that I have passed a more stringent background check than the one for simple ownership,) be denied a ftf sale of a firearm solely on the lack of possession of an Oklahoma Handgun license? That's the way I interpret what CorpsVet is saying.Cowcatcher and adamsredlines are correct, I know one does not NEED the CHL, but IF the seller requires proof of some kind that I am allowed to possess a firearm the license serves to show that.
Sure, showing an Oklahoma Handgun license is a plus but making it a requirement for a ftf firearms sale seems to me to be an arbitrary move that would deny otherwise qualified people from purchasing firearms. It also goes a long way towards conditioning people to believe that they must have a state-issued license to exercise their 2nd Amendment rights.
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