Since the liberals were so eager for the 1994 AWB in the US, and the Aussie gun-law passed a few years later to take the credit for the drop in homicides in both countries, how do they explain the continued drop in the US since 2004?
Has anyone ever asked them?
How do they explain the continued overall drop in US homicide rates now that the 1994 US law has sunsetted?
Has anyone ever asked them?
How do they explain the continued overall drop in US homicide rates now that the 1994 US law has sunsetted?